First a little background....
My sister had a tonic clonic (first seizure) about seven months ago (she was 62 at the time.) The EEG showed a slight spiking in one small area. The Neuro wasn't too concerned at the time (I guess since it was her first seizure).
Then, almost six months later, she had 3 more tonic clonics in a 16 hour period. These 4 seizures have all been nocturnal. Anyway, this time she ended up in the hospital and her Neuro put on on Dilantin. He wanted to see her in 3 weeks to see where the Dilantin levels were in her blood work-up. Now for my question. He did NOT order another EEG. We were surprised. Since she had three more seizures and so close together, we were sure he'd do another EEG to see if there were any changes. He said it wasn't neccessary. That surprised me.
He said (which I've also read) that you can have a normal EEG and still have seizures, or you can have an abnormal EEG and not have seizures. So his theory was (I guess) that there was no point in doing another EEG. Well, if that's the case, why did he do one to begin with? This just doesn't make sense to me.
Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.