This discussion will probably be academic in a week or so after I get the results of my latest (fifth) biopsy, but there are so many knowledgeable and well-informed folks here, I thought I'd just solicit some opinions.
Here's some background:
Age: 52. Being treated at Sloan-Kettering, NYC
85-year-old father has no signs of prostate cancer, just BPH.
Last six PSA readings:
10/24/14 – 6.24, Free PSA = 20%
4/24/15 – 6.14, Free PSA = 21%
11/6/15 – 5.86, Free PSA = 21%
5/20/16 – 5.75, Free PSA = 26%
12/2/16 – 7.73, Free PSA = 24%
6/16/17 – 6.19, Free PSA = 24%
Four previous biopsies from 2009-2012 -- all negative.
Prostate MRIs
8/10 -- PROSTATE MEASUREMENTS: 5.8 x 3.0 x 4.0 cm, calculated prostate volume 34.8 cc, calculated PSA density 0.16. IMPRESSION:Bilateral patchy changes in the prostate from base to apex. In view of
several negative biopsies, extensive tumor is unlikely. No dominant focal
lesion.
6/17 -- PROSTATE MEASUREMENTS: 6.4 x 3.4 x 3.8 cm; volume 43 cc, stable. IMPRESSION: 1. Since August 6, 2010, unchanged signal abnormality throughout the peripheral zone, probably prostatitis in view of multiple prior negative biopsies, however underlying low-grade tumor cannot be excluded. 2. PI-RADS v2 score 3 -- Intermediate (the presence of clinically significant cancer is equivocal)
PCa3 score (6/17) = 29
I'm currently waiting for the results of a biopsy just performed this past week... Doctors have admitted that I am an "unconventional" case.
I'm always seeking more knowledge, so please feel free to post views/opinions.
Thanks!
Post Edited (Hope4Happiness) : 8/5/2017 9:44:23 PM (GMT-6)