Thank you, JNF, for your thorough and detailed explanation.
This is the reason for my confusion:
You wrote: "PSA is PSA regardless of the source.The PSA produced by the prostate is not different than PSA produced by cancer."
TA wrote: "Finasteride lowers PSA by reducing the output of PSA due to BPH, but not prostate cancer."
Finasteride is said to reduce the actual PSA measurement by approximately one-half on paper. So, IOW's, if a man with a prostate taking Finasteride had a PSA reading of 4 his ACTUAL PSA would be estimated to be 8 even though the lab work reported 4, since the general rule is to double the figure. Correct?
SO, if PSA is PSA (as you say), whether it comes from benign or cancerous prostate tissue, if a man who had a RP and is without a prostate and taking Finasteride for hair loss shows a PSA of let's say .05 - wouldn't that mean his ACTUAL estimated PSA level would be .1 (.05 x 2)?
Finasteride would have the same measured effect on cancerous PSA as it would on benign PSA, correct? It would mask (lessen) the true value of the actual PSA measurement by about
one-half. Correct?
I'm trying so hard to ask the right question. I hope this solves it. You can probably tell that I wasn't a science major and would make a lousy doctor.
Thanks again for your helpful information.