So I have this big flare up since 3 months and I have taken Prednisone for 3 months (started at 40 mg) and a total of 144 Pred pills (10mg each) and since it didn't do anything, I tapered off and I am off the Pred since Saturday. My flare isn't better at all. So my doc thinks we should have lots of blood work done and lots of stool samples to see whether I have an infection. Pred masks infections and makes infections worse. Okay, here it is. My inflammatory marker are through the roof and I have white blood cells in my stool which points to an infection. So I will take Flagyl and Levaquin for the infection and at the same time, my doc wants me to start up on 40 mg Pred again.
Please explain that to me: Why in the world would I take Pred again when I likely have an infection that I will fight with Flagyl/Levaquin? I said no to the Pred and the nurse seem to be a little pissy about that. I mean ... hello?? I also take 6MP which is worthless when you have infections (obviously).
Am I so dense that I don't understand why I am supposed to take Pred again or what is the deal?
I will see my doc on Thursday. They want to start me on Remicade, they said. Well ... no. I have a huge deductible with the health insurance and no money for that. I already have to lash out 500 bucks a months for meds. And I really don't want to start on the Remicade, it scares me. I don't feel we have tried everything else, like give 6MP a chance when there is no infection and also try Imuran first since I am a low responder to 6MP.
Sheesh, I am so mad right now.