"Atypical" Crohn's Disease? What can that even mean when every case is different?

At almost 16 I was diagnosed with Crohn's Disease of the Terminal Ileum after a colonoscopy.

After a rough first year on Asacol, I went into remission and stopped taking all meds.

After 11 years of no doctors, meds, or much diarrhea, I've got an perineal abscess and a fistula,  or a "fistulous tract extending superiorly to the bowel (rectum)".

The terminal ileum is perfectly normal. It just looks a little scarred.

The Crohn's has completely jumped from the Ileum and landed itself entirely in the rectum. I've even got rectal ulcers all over the place and the rectum is pale and not pink.

Who knows how long all this has been brewing underneath the surface?

I had the same type of abscess in 2008, but it went away with antibiotics, and the doctor who looked it at made me think that it was more of a 'female problem' than a Crohn's problem.

Has anybody else's Crohn's jumped like this?

I start Remicade this month and my doctor told me I won't go off of it until it fails. And that all this is the result of my own negligence, which was encouraged by my parent's refusal to accept my original diagnosis.

Did anybody experience nausea, fatigue, or dizziness after their first infusion of Remicade?

I wish I had diarrhea instead of this. At least with the diarrhea, I had the illusion of control. But with perianal disease, there is truly nothing I can do to help myself. It's all in Remicade's hands.

Whilst Crohn's can appear anywhere from the mouth to the anus I "think" it would be considered "atypical" for Crohn's to appear in the mouth or sinuses, etc.

There are a majority of symptoms and disease activity that affect most every crohnie and then there are known but relatively rare symptoms and disease activity that few crohnies encounter and they might be considered "atypical".