Hi Everyone, I had a "bullseye" rash in 2010 and was treated with 3 weeks doxy. To make a long story short I've had nothing but health problems ever since. I always thought in the back of my mind that it had to still be lyme disease. I begged an ID Dr. to test me at the end of 2012. He called me with my test results saying "you had a past infection and its no longer active".
The western blot he did showed all my IgG's as "non-reactive" but showed all my IgM's as "reactive".
My question is. why did he said I was no longer active if all my IgM's were reactive? What are the CDC guidlines with this?
I am asking this question for a reason but, regardless I have since seem an LLMD and have had very positve test through igenex and am now being treated, thankfully.