clocknut said...
Let me start by admitting that my father was a door-to-door deliveryman for Sealtest Dairy. I've always loved milk, and continue to drink non-fat milk, though mostly a bit on my cereal in the morning and an occasional glass with a snack.
That being said, could someone please explain to me what it really means when a study says that, "One of these (studies), conducted in northern Italy, found that frequent dairy consumption could increase risk by two and one-half times.
First of all, "frequent" isn't defined, and secondly, I don't fully understand the implications of "two and one-half times." Does that mean that in a study involving 10,000 men, 5 "could" have an increased risk of cancer instead of 2 and a half men?
I remember when I first started taking Lipitor, I did some reading on cholesterol studies, and when someone said that high cholesterol could "double" one's risk of a heart attack, that's approximately what they meant: 6 out of 10,000 instead of 3 out of 10,000.
I can understand avoiding cow's milk if someone really prefers the taste of soy or almond. I can also understand switching when one is dealing with a recurrence and fighting like crazy to keep the disease at bay. But, for most men, all of these studies seem to use the words "might" and "could" and "may," and "suggests" and "possibly," and I just don't have a firm sense of what the risk actually might be. Can someone help me appreciate the true seriousness of the link between dairy and PCa? Has anyone "proved" a link, and how direct is that link? I'm not trying to argue at all, just curious.
I also would like to know how much, if any, dairy increases my risk for recurrence, as one of my doctors is trying to get me off of dairy plus other changes.
Here is a study that indicates there is zero additional risk of PC with dairy:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2360740/
Here is another that says there is an increased risk, but pretty small( highest intake 1.1 times more likely than lowest intake to get PC):
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16333032
Here is one that says for Japanese men, the highest intake group is about
1.6 times as likely to get OC.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18398033
Guess we can take our choice of studies.
And when it comes to looking at risk, it's all in the way of looking at it. If one group has 3 of 10,000 getting PC, and the other group has 6 of 10,000, then the 2nd group is twice as likely I suppose. Still, only an additional 3 out of 10,000 gets PC. Either number is miniscule. What is 3 out of 10,000--- .03%? If that math is correct then the 2nd group is twice as likely to PC but still 1st group is .03% and 2nd group is as additional risk of .03%, for .06%. Is that really worth worrying about
? Even though the risk is doubled?
But a lot of reports will say "such and such cuts risk in half" when having such numbers as above.
Post Edited (BillyBob@388) : 4/25/2014 8:28:31 PM (GMT-6)