mikeslady said...
Regarding the question about the staging: Mike's doctor has staged him at t1c but I question that staging since Gleason 3+4=7 cancer is present in both sides of the prostate. Some reputable websites, however, say that the MAIN TUMOR must extend into both sides of the prostate for it to be t2c. Which is correct?
Neither. The AJCC staging definition (7th edition) has no requirement that the "main tumor" must extend to both sides of the prostate. It just says that there must be tumor involvement on both sides. Unless they remove the whole prostate for examination, it is almost impossible to know with any certainty whether the mass is continuous or discontinuous. Clinical stage is based only on the DRE
unless it is "reliably visible by imaging." In Mike's case, it sounds like it was, although his doctor may have had doubts about
that.
In any case, it doesn't matter. He is in the same intermediate risk class, whether the doctor stages him as stage T1c or stage T2c, because of his Gleason score (I'm assuming his PSA was <10). It would only matter if he were otherwise "low risk." The important thing about
his stage is that it seems to be organ-confined.