In a case such as this, where it has taken almost three years for PSA to rise, why would SRT be the next protocol? I ask not only for Reachout, but also for myself as I know I am at a pretty significant risk for recurrence.
After three years, why would it be assumed that a PSA rise is due to a recurrence in the prostate bed? Maybe my understanding is faulty, but I would think that if there was cancerous prostate tissue left behind, a recurrence would have happened fairly quickly, wouldn't it?
I'm just scared to death of radiation treatment. It just seems to me it's not much more than a shot in the dark in hopes that the photons hit the cancerous tissue. I mean, how can the doctors be sure that the recurrence is happening in the prostate bed and not somewhere else?
Sorry if I'm going off on a tangent here; I'm just trying to understand.