Hi All
As most of you know, zytiga is approved for use by men whose PCa is no longer responding to HT. Ted's is responding really well, but still, his doctor is recommending zytiga as an alternative to casodex. Casodex can be a problem if you have arrythmia, which Ted has (he also had a stroke about 5 years ago). The doctor said that with his cardiac history, we should be able to get an exception from the FDA that allows him to use zytiga. He said to stay on casodex until we get that waiver, because the PCa is a much bigger threat than his cardiac stuff.
I thought, ok, they're going to file some paperwork and get this exception, and at that point will give us a prescription for zytiga. When we were checking out and getting all the prescriptions, the woman in the office who is their FDA-filing person said we needed a prescription for zytiga, that when we submit it and they won't fill it, she then has the grounds to file for the waiver (at least that's what I took away, I may have been on info overload).
So we have this prescription, but I'm confused. How would the pharmacy know that we're a little off-indication? I would have thought that if we walk in with a prescription from a real doctor, they'd fill it.
I just don't want to do anything that could hurt our odds of getting the exception. Does anyone know how this is supposed to work?
thanks